Wasn't the Spanish flu deadly because it mutated and the mutations formed the wave pattern?
It was also significantly less deadly than it could have been because plenty of people at the time had been alive for the previous less severe flu pandemic that luckily was a very similar virus.
Wasn't that only the case for the first wave, before it mutated? Or am I mis-remembering that?
@Stonehedge started
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Wasn't the Spanish flu deadly because it mutated and the mutations formed the wave pattern?